Here is the scenario:

An individual who meets the definitions of a first time home buyer moves in with his girlfriend, the two are not married.

The individual refinances the mortgage for the girlfriend. He is the primary party responsible for the mortgage. He is added to the deed, and is responsible for half of the mortgage, interest, taxes, and expenses.

Does this qualify as a purchase?

The credit would allow for the individual to claim the full credit even if he purchased a new house with the girlfriend who is not a new credit.

He previously had no real property interests, and following the refinance he has 50% interest in real property. The transaction was funded by debt incurred by the individual.

I am curious to hear some thoughts. Thanks!